Kentucky Downs Race 11 9/12

[notoday]

The 9 horse wins the race The 3 and 5 deadheat for 2nd.Without the deadheat the 9/3 exacta for a dollar was$23 The 9/5 was$82 for a dollar
The final prices were 9/3 $11.80 9/5 $39.90
How does each price return half?

[Achilles]

I think they split the $$'s because both horses finished second in the race, but each was not the only second place finisher, so they split the pot. I can't produce the rule, but I'm sure someone here can do so.

If it had been a dead heat for the win, the tracks do it the same way, which is really galling. Imagine if you bet a 20-1 shot who dead heats with a favorite. The chalk player ends up with more than he/she deserves, and you end up with less.

If I'm wrong, I'm sure someone here will correct me.

JK

[SharpCat]

They use profit split which means to calculate a payout by splitting pari-mutuel pool equally between each winning combination and dividing each portion by the number of winning tickets.

Here is the source.

https://apps.legislature.ky.gov/law/kar/810/006/020.pdf

[Afleet]

did they ever show the photo? It takes forever for Ky downs to make a race official. I thought the stayed and I had the . I got tired of waiting so I switched to another track

[notoday]

Took at least 15 minutes Never saw the photo
Thanks to all for the explanations thought one third not one half

[garyscpa]

According to the will pays, the pick 5 was supposed to pay $556.40 to the 9, and the pick 4 was supposed to pay $217.85 to the 9. And this was after the 11 and 12 had scratched, because they didn't show in the will pays.



Instead it paid $258.30 and $158.15, respectively.

[SharpCat]

Originally Posted by garyscpa

According to the will pays, the pick 5 was supposed to pay $556.40 to the 9, and the pick 4 was supposed to pay $217.85 to the 9. And this was after the 11 and 12 had scratched, because they didn't show in the will pays.



Instead it paid $258.30 and $158.15, respectively.

I'm assuming the 11 and 12 were scratched after the 1st leg of the pick four had ran. If so any money bet on them in the pick 4-5 would then go to the post time favorite in the final leg. The favorite won the final leg hence the shorter prices.

[garyscpa]

Originally Posted by SharpCat

I'm assuming the 11 and 12 were scratched after the 1st leg of the pick four had ran. If so any money bet on them in the pick 4-5 would then go to the post time favorite in the final leg. The favorite won the final leg hence the shorter prices.

Did you understand that I said those were the shown will pays after the 11 and 12 were scratched?

[SharpCat]

Originally Posted by garyscpa

Did you understand that I said those were the shown will pays after the 11 and 12 were scratched?

I understand. I'm not sure you understand. The money played on the 11 and 12 goes to the post time favorite. In most cases because of the late money they don't know who the favorite will be until all the money is in. Even with an obvious chalk there never going to show the adjusted will pays.

[garyscpa]

Originally Posted by SharpCat

I understand. I'm not sure you understand. The money played on the 11 and 12 goes to the post time favorite. In most cases because of the late money they don't know who the favorite will be until all the money is in. Even with an obvious chalk there never going to show the adjusted will pays.

11 was scratched before race 1, but I see your point on the 12. I guess that's the only explanation that makes sense.