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Old 12-02-2017, 04:55 PM   #1
therussmeister
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New Yorker magazine

There is an article in the current edition of New Yorker magazine on the brothers Ortiz. I have not read it yet, but I do know the article also talks about the breakdown rate in New York.
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Old 12-02-2017, 05:17 PM   #2
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Thanks for the head's up......

https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2...p-horse-racing
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Old 12-02-2017, 06:40 PM   #3
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That article is really good.
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Old 12-03-2017, 08:38 AM   #4
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That article is really good.
Thanks for the head's up. Good read. And for a horse racing article in a periodical like the New Yorker it is accurate. Breakdown rate is discussed but not dwelled upon. Context is that racing dug its own grave by mass producing the sport, necessitating more taxing dirt courses rather than more forgiving grass.
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Old 12-03-2017, 09:51 AM   #5
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Good read, thanks for the link.
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Old 12-03-2017, 12:57 PM   #6
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I enjoyed that. Thanks.

(So did my sister, who only occasionally attends/watches the races.)
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Old 12-03-2017, 04:41 PM   #7
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Did they interview EMD4ME for that piece?
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Old 12-03-2017, 05:44 PM   #8
Franco Santiago
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Article says:

"For first place, jockeys receive ten per cent of the owner’s share. At the N.Y.R.A.’s three venues—Saratoga; Aqueduct, in Queens; and Belmont, on Long Island—that is sixty per cent of the over-all purse."

How is 10% of the owner's share, 60% of the overall purse?

Unless the writer means that the the winning owner gets 60% of the overall purse. If so, that's poorly worded.

If I am wrong, please let me know.
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Old 12-03-2017, 06:17 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by Franco Santiago View Post
Article says:

"For first place, jockeys receive ten per cent of the owner’s share. At the N.Y.R.A.’s three venues—Saratoga; Aqueduct, in Queens; and Belmont, on Long Island—that is sixty per cent of the over-all purse."

How is 10% of the owner's share, 60% of the overall purse?

Unless the writer means that the the winning owner gets 60% of the overall purse. If so, that's poorly worded.

If I am wrong, please let me know.

I think that the intent is to state that the "owner's share" is what is being referred to by the sixty percent portion.
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Old 12-03-2017, 06:29 PM   #10
Franco Santiago
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I think that the intent is to state that the "owner's share" is what is being referred to by the sixty percent portion.
Yeah, I think you must be correct. Too us, it makes sense (because we know), but to someone just picking up the mag, it makes it seem like the jock is making a ton...imagine if the jock gets 60% of a Breeder's Cup purse or Triple Crown race.
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