Quote:
Originally Posted by Actor
Indeed! As far as I can discover the earliest dictionary was published in China in 100 C.E. The first ever dictionary of the English language was published by Robert Cawdry in 1604 C.E.
One page one of The Elements Euclid defines 23 words and phrases. If we are to accept the proposition that all definitions must come from a dictionary then what dictionary did Euclid get his definitions from? Did some ancient Greek compile a dictionary?
In academia (which you may not believe in) the common practice is for the speaker or writer to define his terms. "Define fill-in-the-blank" is a common challenge. If this challenge comes from a teacher a response of "look it up in a dictionary" will not score you any points, rather your are on your way to a low grade or even an F.
The purpose of words is to communicate, not to obfuscate. It is quite alright to refine a definition of to redefine a word if doing do clarifies what you mean. If no word fits it is quite alright to coin your own word. This is what Euclid did in The Elements.
It is quite obvious that your purpose is not to communicate but to obfuscate. And you wish to obfuscate because religion cannot stand up to critical examination.
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There you go projecting again. You are the one who obfuscates and your central purpose is to distort, twist and bend definitions to suit your purposes and agenda. In other words, you are the Master of Equivocation.
For example, "eternal" has always been commonly understood to mean timelessness, i.e. no beginning, no end. But now you want to redefine the term altogether?
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/eternal
And why are you so utterly naive that you believe that people in hoidy toidy "academia" are honest as the day is long and lily-white and pure as the driven snow?
Those people are as flawed and broken as the rest of us!
