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Originally Posted by dnlgfnk
In Jn 10:34, Jesus cites Ps 82:6.
Despite the layers of meaning, at minimum Jesus can appeal to rabbinic literalism to avoid the charge of blasphemy.
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Although references to "sons of God", "son of God" and "son of the LORD" are occasionally found in Jewish literature, they never refer to physical descent from God. There are two instances where Jewish kings are figuratively referred to as a god.The king is likened to the supreme king God. These terms are often used in the general sense in which the Jewish people were referred to as [B]"children of the LORD your God"
In a Kaballiastic sense...Kabbalah is an ancient series of
mystical teachings there is a strong view the Lord of the Universe is mirrored within as the Lord of each individual.
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Kabbalah sees the human soul as mirroring the Divine (after Genesis 1:27, "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him, male and female He created them")
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So "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High"
is symbolic not "rabbinic literalism"
Unfortunately literal biblical Christianity does not really understand their own roots, Judaism. The Christian messiah just a retelling of this inner symbol in a new form.
Many religions and myths are variations on the same truth
