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Is this conjecture, or is there some reported statement that such was the case? What is the origin of the "angels"? Were they also "created" or were they pre-existing?
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I cited scripture as the statement. T
he children of this age marry and are given in marriage; but those who are deemed worthy to attain to the coming age and to the resurrection of the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage. Marriage is for procreation.
It is thought they were created when God created light.
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Why would they do such a thing? It seems more likely that they were acting consistently with their natures (or "true natures") rather than in some more (expected/desired) constrained manner.
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Supposedly, out of jealousy of mankind and man's ability to procreate.
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Why? Would it not be possible to simply create more angels (if they were created)? That implies both a lack of angels and a need for mankind. That is, a different type of relationship than most seem to believe exists. More quid pro quo than beaming benevolence.
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Yes, it is believed there was a need for mankind. I don't know what most believe about the relationship.
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Given the vernacular of the time, one could easily interpret this to mean virgins, not converts. That, too, implies a different type of relationship.
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No. The response is given to answer the following question.
they asked him a question, saying, “Teacher, Moses wrote for us that if a man's brother dies, having a wife but no children, the man[f] must take the widow and raise up offspring for his brother. 29 Now there were seven brothers. The first took a wife, and died without children. 30 And the second 31 and the third took her, and likewise all seven left no children and died. 32 Afterward the woman also died. 33 In the resurrection, therefore, whose wife will the woman be? For the seven had her as wife.”
