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[formula_2002]

Originally Posted by geroge.burns99

Hey Formula.....

Explain to me/us why this changed your perspective....


I know its suppose to be better than ROI.....

But ROI is exactly what your getting that "1/(odds+1)" is just a theory

EX:

Say you have a factor that give you a 1.06 ROI but "1/(odds+1)" give you a .90....Do you abandum that because its destined to fail in theory?

And on the other hand...

Say you have a .89 factor but "1/(odds+1)" gives you a +1.03...
So you continue to hang in till it assumes its positive probable outcome???

thxs

Mike

1/(odds+1) is used to determine the booking percentage of any race or any other odds list.
Look at any results chart listing the all-track odds , sum 1/(odds+1). At a 15% takeout track the sum could be 1.176 or greater.
As shown in the table I posted in the 1st note. It helps me understand what is needed to at least break even.
Say your $1 return on a 2-1 shot at a 15% take-out track was 1.06
Based on my posted table to break even you need to be 117% better than the public.
1.06 x 117.65%= 125%.. that’s how much better you are than the public.
Not a small task. Way beyond my pay grade.


suggested reading: "Horse Sence" By Button Fabrican phd. while we never lunched together we did correspond (back in day via snail mail)