Quote:
Originally Posted by dilanesp
Never. As long as the government has a rational basis for shutting down businesses, which the pandemic provides, and doesn't discriminate against a protected class, there's no due process violations.
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And who, exactly, determines if the government (in this case, the state) has a rational basis for shutting down businesses?
At the beginning of a pandemic, sure, it's tough to make the argument the state is not acting rationally.
How about a couple of months later? How about 5-6 months later?
Who is the arbiter of such conflicts?
I'm thinking that you aren't thinking this through.
You mention precedent a LOT in our discussions about this matter.
However, how much precedent exists for what we are going through today?
When was the last time large swaths of the economy were shut down for extended periods of time by state governors? Can you remember any? Due to a pandemic?
How much precedent REALLY exists for something like this?