Quote:
Originally Posted by boxcar
I bet I don't have half the number of "fundamentalist" websites in my "arsenal" that you guys have skeptics' sites in yours.
This "contradiction" of yours is easily resolved if you understood what Jn 1:1-5 is teaching. And you also understand what Jesus taught in Jn 6:46; 14:9. But I know you'd never be able to plumb the depths of these passages and the ones you cited. So, allow me:
No one has ever seen God (the Father) in his essence, save for the Son; therefore all who have seen God in the OT have seen the preincarnate Son who never manifested himself in all God's glory; for if he had no one would have lived to tell the story.
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As I said...a quite pointless reply. Moses supposedly talked to God "face-to-face, as friends do"...but he never saw God "in his essence".
Why didn't John add the words "in his essence" to his own commentary at John 1:18 and John 4:12? Because he wanted to leave you with something to do thousands of years LATER?
