MAGICHORSEMAN
04-19-2012, 02:59 PM
Does anyone know why the payoff was for the winners of the 1st, 2nd and 4th leg winnners with the all in the 3rd, 5th and 6th legs?
Why did not the payoff just be for any 3 of 6 winners ?
This day was the day they paid the whole pool for the final day of betting.
Why did not the payoff just be for any 3 of 6 winners ?
This day was the day they paid the whole pool for the final day of betting.